Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 00:34
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What makes someone feel "rich enough" in different societies?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
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There's no rule.